There are many exegetical debates about whether homosexuality as we know it is ever condemned as “abominable before the Lord.” What really should be understood is that many of the laws of the Jews in the Old Testament were in order to function as a society and, in essence, propagate the Jewish people. If you take a close look, any type of non-procreative sex is banned in the OT, which would include homosexuality. So there’s that. In the New Testament, the only condemnations come from Paul, and it is important to realize that he is writing to specific churches about specific issues. In Roman temples, orgies of all kinds were common practice. Paul may have included rejection of homosexuality as a part of a broader condemnation of sexual immorality. However, monogamous relationships are clearly seen as the ideal in Scripture. The reason heterosexual monogamous relationships have historically been given preference is because they are a) procreative, b) understood more clearly in Biblical mythology (myth as story, not as fiction), and c) because homosexuality has historically been repressed and misunderstood. In my view, the morality of God would have nothing against gay marriage, because is it not the fulfillment of God’s relational purpose in the life of that couple? If God is a God of love, would He not desire each of His supreme creations’ to exemplify that love through a lifelong commitment to another? My spiel.
